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Inciting Crime
Former Member
Posts: 1,876,323 The Mix Honorary Guru
Is there a law of 'inciting someone to commit a criminal act' ?
I use Gaydar (gay dating site) a lot as i have a lot of mates on there and regularly use the HIV+ chat room. Of late we're getting a lot of bugchasers (people who want to be infected with HIV) in this room.
Now to the best of my knowledge, knowingly infecting someone with HIV is a crime, therefore if A is asking B to infect them, are they not inciting B to commit a crime ?
I ask this as i'm getting sick and tired of these sick fucks and Gaydar's attitude towards them, as in they won't do anything about it. But there is a clause in there T&C that states 'memebers shall not engage in any illegal activity on the site or in chat' so that should be cause for banning.
Ta muchly.
I use Gaydar (gay dating site) a lot as i have a lot of mates on there and regularly use the HIV+ chat room. Of late we're getting a lot of bugchasers (people who want to be infected with HIV) in this room.
Now to the best of my knowledge, knowingly infecting someone with HIV is a crime, therefore if A is asking B to infect them, are they not inciting B to commit a crime ?
I ask this as i'm getting sick and tired of these sick fucks and Gaydar's attitude towards them, as in they won't do anything about it. But there is a clause in there T&C that states 'memebers shall not engage in any illegal activity on the site or in chat' so that should be cause for banning.
Ta muchly.
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Comments
Your guess is as good as mine. Some people think it's hip to be poz, some people think it's a 'golden ticket' into the benefits system (is isn't, i get nothing for being +ve), for some it's a 'thrill', some are so worried about getting HIV that they just want to get infected so they don't have to worry about it anymore. That's some of the excuses i've heard :rolleyes:
i find male sexuality hard to deal with at most times and to think of men leching over passing STD's because it signifies domination of the highest order.
let me do some research for 20minutes. i can remember a case off the top of my head R v Dica 2004. google it and read for yourself what the judges made of the law in this area.
the mens rea of an incitement is that the result of the full offence must be comitted. applying this to the facts, somebody says well (luckily) no virus was transmitted so there was no grevious bodily harm. now i never got my degree in law, but i thought that line of thought is fairly interesting. other precedents can draw harm from almost any kind of sexual deviance.
a good article for those like me comming to terms with this activity.
Think you mentioned that before. It was 'trendy' or something amongst the gay community to have HIV?
If B was to infect A, then I think B will get done because he committed the crime. He had a choice and no-one forced him to make that choice.